rghf
05-04-2005, 04:18 AM
For various reasons we take quite a few orders via email directly and then manually setup billing etc for the customers. Now on our website we have our TOS which has the normal bits and bobs (no spamming, hacking, cancellation procedures etc).
Now is it unreasonable to assume that as customers actually use the service that they will be bound by these TOS even though we don't have anything that says they have agreed. As far as I understand it (under UK law at least) that as it would be considered general practice that people using the service would automatically be tied into the T+C's as long as they are reasonable
Rus
Now is it unreasonable to assume that as customers actually use the service that they will be bound by these TOS even though we don't have anything that says they have agreed. As far as I understand it (under UK law at least) that as it would be considered general practice that people using the service would automatically be tied into the T+C's as long as they are reasonable
Rus
