I dont' have a clue where to post a question like this so I will post it here and hope the mods will be patient and move it where it belongs

Here is my question:

If an artist; say from Russia, made some artwork with illegal/cracked software (Adobe) and he sold the files to some person, let's say in England, and then in turn the person in England put it on the internet; forsale as royalty free, And someone from the US bought it (as royalty free) and used it as 'royalty free'. Who is in the wrong? Morally? Legally?

I pride myself in legalitly and my morals. I have a conscious and this is bugging me. But enough said.

Comments from a lawyer? Or just comments from someone that knows the royalty laws, or someone that has been through this.

Thanks

James

What your trying to say is that the artist is using pirated software.

That's where the buck stops so to speak.

Putting in not IT terms:

X rob a banks, buy a paintbrush with the proceeds, paints your house , you sell your house to me ....

what does armed robbey have to do with me?

Obviously nothing.

Sean

The first designer is in the wrong. So long as the other two didn't buy it with the knowledge it was made using illegal software

Can you be more specific here or at least cite more specific examples?

Originally posted by Mubarak
The first designer is in the wrong. So long as the other two didn't buy it with the knowledge it was made using illegal software

I didn't know it at the time, but now I do.

And they guy in england is still selling all this.

Customers should not be responsible that design products they purchased are created by someone who used a pirated software.

There is a antipirated low in every country so everione must observe it.

Best Regards
Dimitar